wnyc.org / 93.9fm / am 820

Word Maven Patricia T. O'Conner

Wednesday, August 27, 2008

Word maven Patricia T. O’Conner answers your questions about the English language! Give us a call at 212-433-9692 (212-433-WNYC) or leave a comment at wnyc.org.


Comments

  • [1] Marc Naimark from Paris August 27, 2008 - 04:48AM

    Patricia's back!


  • [2] Elie Walters from New York City August 27, 2008 - 11:38AM

    Hello

    In England they use the word 'homely' in place of 'homey', as in "the room feels much more homely now". Which came first? Is one idiomatic and one proper English?

    thanks


  • [3] Marc Naimark from Paris August 27, 2008 - 12:06PM

    A question for Patricia: I love your appearances with Leonard and I enjoy reading your blog, but I'd like to know what language-related blogs you read and radio programs and podcasts you listen to, or would recommend to the non-professional language lover.


  • [4] Chuck D from Jersey City August 27, 2008 - 01:30PM

    I have been hearing a lot of people using the word "(dis)orientated", instead of "(dis)oriented". Is orientated a real word? I didn't think so. Has the whole world gone mad?!?!


  • [5] alex from NYC August 27, 2008 - 01:30PM

    A House is Not a Home is the 1953 autobiography of famous New York madam Polly Adler. (Wikipedia).


  • [6] Frago from 2 feet from the monitor August 27, 2008 - 01:33PM

    A House is Not a Home is the 1953 autobiography of New York madam Polly Adler

    House = house of prostitution


  • [7] alex from NYC August 27, 2008 - 01:36PM

    According to All Things Considered, Beijing should be pronouned with a hard "j", like the beginning of juice (not soft, as in azure).

    They reprimanded the NBC staff for this. Lucky they haven't heard Leonard Lopate.


  • [8] hunter from LES August 27, 2008 - 01:36PM

    which is more commonly spoken in chinatown, cantonnese or mandarin?


  • [9] Its_just_me August 27, 2008 - 01:37PM

    I wish Greece had its Hellenic name: Hellas .. what happened?


  • [10] david from riverdale/NYC August 27, 2008 - 01:37PM

    The chief executive of the US is addressed as "Mr. President;" the chief executive of a city is addressed as "Mr. Mayor," yet the chief executive of a state is addressed as "Governor." - Why the discrepancy?


  • [11] Paulo from Paterson, New Jersey August 27, 2008 - 01:37PM

    Farsi is the Arabic word for the Persian language (Arabic has no "P").


  • [12] Norman from Toronto August 27, 2008 - 01:37PM

    Hello!

    Leonard, your knowledge of Chinese is so correct and impressive.

    However, in Mandarin the word "Beijing" is prounounced with the "j" like "juice" or "jack", not "zh", which is a common mispronunciation.

    Your show is amazing. And I absolutely adore the segments involving Patricia.


  • [13] Christopher from East Village August 27, 2008 - 01:38PM

    I have a problem with the pronunciation of "divisive". I have always pronounced it with a long "I" ("eye) sound on the second "I". Then I started hearing President Bush saying it with a short "I" (as in "miss"). I've looked in my dictionary, and the "miss" pronunciation isn't there. And now I hear Obama saying it in the same Bush way!


  • [14] SKD from brooklyn August 27, 2008 - 01:38PM

    On the subject of house versus home: I think "home" became a buzzword with realtors who wanted to make their product more appealing. That explains why smaller houses are more likely to be described as homes than larger houses, in order to bolster the less grand product. Also, in this unfortunate time of high mortgage foreclosures, I think we hear talk of foreclosing homes instead of foreclosing houses in order to call up the emotional aspects of the situation.


  • [15] Vic from NJ August 27, 2008 - 01:41PM

    The origin of the name "CHINA"...?

    In ancient Greek, "cina" is "dog"

    Is this, perhaps, just another cultural "dis." that got lost in translation?


  • [16] Norman from Toronto August 27, 2008 - 01:43PM

    Mandarin: "bei" = "north"

    Cantonese: "pek" = "north"

    Bei/Pek + ing = Beijing/Peking


  • [17] T. Scott Lilly from Brooklyn August 27, 2008 - 01:43PM

    You should play the

    They Might Be Giants song

    Istanbul!


  • [18] jackie from Midtown August 27, 2008 - 01:43PM

    Why "Nueva York" from some Spanish-speaking communities? On the contrary, I've never heard Puerto Plata referred to as "Silver Port."


  • [19] Paulo from Paterson, New Jersey August 27, 2008 - 01:46PM

    I saw a commercial (think it was for a phone company) where two parents are talking to their daughter in Chinese. And the daughter asks if her mother's making Peking duck. While I couldn't understand a word of it, she definitely said a word that sounded like Peking. So maybe Peking refers to some other detail of the city of Beijing.


  • [20] Vic from NJ August 27, 2008 - 01:46PM

    ...PS

    Turn this reference around, Chinese would refer to their adversaries as, "running dogs."


  • [21] Kelly Chang from NYC August 27, 2008 - 01:48PM

    Peking is a tranliteration of Cantonese or Southern "north capital" pronounced closer to "buck" + "king". In Mandarin, the same characters are pronounced "bay jing" or Beijing in pinyin spelling. There is a J sound in mandarin. very close to the english, less like a soft j many westerners think it is.


  • [22] donovan from Brooklyn August 27, 2008 - 01:48PM

    Pat is asking herself why she is even in this segment...


  • [23] Michael - from west village August 27, 2008 - 01:49PM

    On the show - please dicuss the growing use in recent decades of the pronunciation "rahhther" rather than the American "Raaaather"

    To what do you attribute this?


  • [24] Betty Ann from UES August 27, 2008 - 01:52PM

    Can you ask her about the word "jabip." It's a slang term my mother from Pennsylvania used to use when she didn't want to tell us where she was going (i.e. Christmas Shopping).


  • [25] robert from park slope August 27, 2008 - 01:56PM

    At what point should one no longer be offended at widespread grammatical faux pas and accept that the language has changed?


  • [26] Bo from Brooklyn - Prospect Heights August 27, 2008 - 01:57PM

    To whom much is given, much is expected. - Luke 12:48.


  • [27] Steve (the other one) from Manhattan August 27, 2008 - 01:58PM

    "For everyone to whom much is given, of him shall much be required." -- Luke 12:48


  • [28] R Meyer from Manhattan August 27, 2008 - 02:00PM

    To the one whom much is given...is from the Bible. I forget where though. I suspect that it has been translated with sexist language (i.e., to the man....) Inclusive language linguists prefer "to the one...."


  • [29] Julia Paterson August 27, 2008 - 02:04PM

    "...to whom much is given, of him much will be required" comes from The New Testament, the gospel of St. Luke, chapter 12 verse 48. Hope this helps -- Google is wonderful!

    Julia


  • [30] John from Woodside August 27, 2008 - 02:19PM

    LUKE 12:48

    "For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more." This expresses the concept that the Christian God is just: he does not require any less faithfulness to the Gospel from those who have much material wealth and power. On the contrary, God seeks more committment from those who, through their earthly circumstances, have more ability to help their fellow man.

    john,Woodside


  • [31] Frank Deis from New Jersey August 27, 2008 - 02:19PM

    You mentioned Pinyin and I thought you were going to lay out the full answer but you didn't quite get there. Here it is.

    The answer is that it has always been BEIZHING in Mandarin. The old systems of Wade and Wade Giles go back to a Jesuit system that put a heavy emphasis on apostrophes. The problem is that English speakers are generally not prone to notice apostrophes, and the old system hinges completely on paying attention to them.

    For example we have the Tao Te Ching which, with no apostrophes, should be pronounced Dao De Dzhing. Several consonants move from voiced to unvoiced with the addition of the apostrophe. And Peking, with no apostrophes, was intending to be pronounced as Beizhing. With apostrophes, P'ek'ing, it would actually be something like "Peking" but that is a word which really never existed. I think we are stuck with it as a descriptor for ducks, living or roasted.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wade-Giles


  • [32] Tisha from Ho-Ho-Kus, NJ August 27, 2008 - 02:28PM

    Well, I guess it really depends on what translation you read, but I always heard it "of those to whom much is given, much is expected," and when I asked our very learned parish priest the origin of the expression, HE told me it was from St. Ignatius Loyola (who was probably paraphrasing (or even translating) Luke anyway.

    Impressed as always at what all the listeners have contributed to this question


  • [33] R Meyer from Manhattan August 27, 2008 - 02:39PM

    there are tons of bad biblical translations. the NRSV is my favorite these days. The New Jerusalem Bible was translated into French, and then from French to English. Both retain a lot of the prose & poetry, which is lost in something such as The New American Bible.


Leave a Comment

Please stay on topic, be civil, and be brief.
Email addresses are never displayed, but they are required to confirm your comments. Names are displayed with all comments. WNYC reserves the right to edit any comments posted on this site. Please read the WNYC.org Comment Guidelines before posting.

Your comment


* required
The information entered into this form will not be used to send unsolicited email and will not be sold to a third party.
 
Back to Episode